COMPETITIVE EXAM MCQs SERIES of ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE for UGC-NET/JRF, SLET, ARS, GATE, and other entrance tests – Environmental Laws in India.
Syllabus Outline
- Constitutional provisions (Articles 48A and 51A(g)).
- India’s commitments to international treaties.
- Environment Protection Act, 1986.
- Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 and Amendment Act, 2023
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and (Amendment) Act, 2023
- Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016.
- EIA Notification, 2006 and EIA Draft Notification, 2020.
- National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
- National Green Tribunal (NGT).
This quiz contains the concept-based most frequently asked 25 MCQs of “Environmental Laws in India“. Each question has a single correct/most appropriate answer.
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1. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the enforcement of environmental laws in India?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) National Disaster Management Authority
c) National Environment Appellate Authority
d) Central Pollution Control Board
2. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 includes provisions for controlling pollution from:
I – Industrial sources
II – Vehicular emissions
III – Agricultural activities
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) I, II and III
3. Which landmark case led to the Supreme Court of India affirming the “Polluter Pays Principle”?
a) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
b) Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan
c) S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India
d) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
4. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted in response to which disaster?
a) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
b) Chernobyl Disaster
c) Uttarakhand Floods
d) Tsunami in Indian Ocean
5. Which of the following is the objective of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?
I – Conservation of biological diversity
II – Sustainable use of its components
III – Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) I, II and III
6. Under which act is the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b) Environment Protection Act, 1986
c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
d) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
7. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 categorizes protected areas into:
a) National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Conservation Reserves
b) Biosphere Reserves, Wetlands, and Mangroves
c) Heritage Sites, Marine Parks, and Wetlands
d) Reserved Forests, Protected Forests, and Village Forests
8. The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification was issued under which act?
a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
9. The Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 replaced which earlier rules?
a) Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 1998
b) E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2011
c) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008
d) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2011
10. The concept of “Extended Producer Responsibility” is most closely associated with which type of waste?
a) Electronic waste (e-waste)
b) Municipal solid waste
c) Construction and demolition waste
d) Biomedical waste
11. The Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 were enacted under which act?
a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
d) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
12. Which of the following is a key objective of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?
I – Promoting afforestation
II – Enhancing energy efficiency
III – Conserving biodiversity
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) I, II and III
13. Which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with environmental pollution?
a) Section 268
b) Section 304
c) Section 144
d) Section 377
14. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, who has the authority to grant approvals for accessing biological resources?
a) National Biodiversity Authority
b) Central Pollution Control Board
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
d) State Pollution Control Boards
15. Which of the following acts was enacted to provide for the conservation of forests and the rights of forest-dwelling communities?
a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
b) Forest Rights Act, 2006
c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
d) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
16. The Supreme Court of India ordered the closure of several polluting industries in the Ganga basin under which case?
a) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
b) Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan
c) S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India
d) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
17. Which principle in environmental law asserts that lack of full scientific certainty should not be used as a reason for postponing measures to prevent environmental degradation?
a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Precautionary Principle
c) Sustainable Development
d) Absolute Liability
18. The Indian government introduced the “Green Skill Development Programme” under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
c) Ministry of Labour and Employment
d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
19. Which act mandates the recycling and proper disposal of e-waste in India?
a) Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
b) E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016
c) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
d) Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2016
20. Which act or body regulates the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in India?
a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)
d) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
21. The Stockholm Convention is related to which environmental concern?
a) Ozone depletion
b) Persistent Organic Pollutants
c) Greenhouse gas emissions
d) Marine pollution
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Setting national ambient air quality standards
b) Conducting research on pollution control
c) Issuing environmental clearances for projects
d) Monitoring air and water quality
23. The Kyoto Protocol is related to:
a) Biodiversity conservation
b) Climate change mitigation
c) Marine pollution control
d) Ozone layer protection
24. Which international agreement aims to reduce the emissions of substances that deplete the ozone layer?
a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Montreal Protocol
c) Paris Agreement
d) Stockholm Convention
25. Which Indian law addresses the environmental impact of industrial activities and projects?
a) Factories Act, 1948
b) Mines Act, 1952
c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
d) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
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References
- Divan, S. & Rosencranz, A. (2021) Environmental Law and Policy in India, Oxford University Press, 3rd Edition
- Shastri, S. C. (2020) Environmental Law, Eastern Book Company, 6th Edition.
- Singh, G. P. (2022) Environmental Laws in India, LexisNexis, 4th Edition.
- Kumar, S. (2018) Environmental Legislation in India: An Overview, Regal Publications, 2nd Edition.
- Bharucha, E. (2017) Textbook of Environmental Studies for Undergraduate Courses, Universities Press, 3rd Edition.
